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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 18.06.2025 01:16

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

There's no way Republican Trump won all seven swing states. How was he able to cheat and steal the election?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

If my heart stopped beating, would I have enough energy to walk out into the other room 20 ft away before I passed out and died?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

There's no rule.

I’ve often wondered why fans aren’t deployed on GBBO during warm weather? I’ve seen too many desserts melt (and bakers too…). (I live in Pompano Beach and we try to use fans in lieu of AC as much as possible).

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.